100 Best Questions and Answers Kerala PSC Examination of Nurse

100 Questions and Answers

100 Best Questions and Answers from Kerala PSC Nurse Examinations

These are 100 Best Questions and Answers to ask Kerala PSC Nurse Examinations, it’s not just anyhow questions but questions that are friendly, questions that will make job seekers feel good. Most candidates don’t actually know how to ask questions, they might end up sending a wrong signal with their questions and answers unknowingly. Especially when you are meeting with someone for the first and you are trying to make a good impression, your question can turn the person off. Kerala PSC and Nurse Grade II examination Answer Key with 100 Questions and Answers going to published now. Category number 770/2014. Paper Code 18/2016/OL/2016/OL. Medium of Questions English and Date of Test is 28/01/2016. So if you don’t want to ruin that first impression, these are some interesting questions to ask Kerala PSC Nurse without embarrassing them. Psc applications also provides Assistant in various Universities in Kerala Recruitment.

100 Best Questions and Answers To Ask Kerala PSC examinations

1. Which river is called as “Salt River” ?
A. Luny
B. Narmada
C. Mahanadi
D. Kaveri

Answer. Luny

2. Which is the largest lake in India ?
A. Ashtamudi
B. Sambaar
C. Chilka
D. Wular

Answer. Cancelled

3. Most dominating factor of Indian Climate is monsoon winds. The word ‘Monsoon‘ has been derived from Global the Arabic word “Mausim” which means
A. Seasons
B. Wind
C. Rain
D. Cold

Answer. Seasons

4. The ______ soil is the most extensive cover 40 % of total area of India.
A. Black soil
B. Red soil
C. Alluvial soil
D. Laterite soil

Answer. Alluvial soil

5. The Indian state having highest percentage of people under poverty line
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Chattisgarh
D. Bihar

Answer. Chattisgarh

6. Who is known as ‘Patriotic Saint of India’ ?
A. Swami Dayananda Saraswathi
B. Swami Vivekananda
C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
D. Swami Suhajanand

Answer. Swami Vivekananda

7. Who introduced regular census in India ?
A. Lord Ripon
B. Dathonsie
C. Dufferin
D. Lord Lurzon

Answer. Lord Ripon

8. First Techno Park in India was established at
A. Thiruvananthapuram
B. Ernakulam
C. Bangalore
D. Chennai

Answer. Thiruvananthapuram

9. The first tobacco free district in India
A. Kannur
B. Ernakulam
C. Pathanamthitta
D. Kottayam

Answer. Kottayam

10. Smt. Sheila Dexhit was the _______ women Governor of Kerala.
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. She was not became Governor of Kerala

Answer. Third

11. Who was the ‘Father of Modern Renaissance of Kerala’ ?
A. Chattambi Swamikal
B. Sree Narayana Guru
C. Ayyankali
D. Mannathu Padmanabhan

Answer. Sree Narayana Guru

12. Who was the founder of ‘Samatwa Samajam’ ?
A. Thycadu Ayyappan
B. Vaikunda Swamikal
C. Sree Narayana Guru
D. Ayyankali

Answer. Vaikunda Swamikal

13. Who is called as ‘Lincoln of Kerala’ ?
A. Pandit Karuppan
B. Sahrdaya Ayyappan
C. Kumaranasan
D. Poikayil Yohannan

Answer. Pandit Karuppan

14. In which year Chavara Kuriakose Alias Achan was declared as Saint By Pope Francis ?
A. 2014 November 23
B. 2015 June 23
C. 2013 December 24
D. 1986 February 8

Answer. 2014 November 23

15. Which Dance is known as ‘Poor Mans Kathakali’ ?
A. Parayan Thullal
B. Ottam Thullal
C. Bharathnatyam
D. Theyyam

Answer. Ottam Thullal

16. Which country won the last World Cup Football held in Brazil ?
A. Argentina
B. Brazil
C. Germany
D. Columbia

Answer. Germany

17. Which film won the Oscar Award 2014 ?
A. 12 years a slave
B. Gravity
C. Blue Jasmine
D. Titanic

Answer. 12 years a slave

18. Amjath Ali Khan is related to
A. Sarod
B. Tabla
C. Violin
D. Sitar

Answer. Sarod

19. 35th National Games was held in
A. Rajasthan
B. Delhi
C. Kerala
D. Mumbai

Answer. Kerala

20. In which country ‘BRICS Summit’ held 2015 ?
A. Korea
B. Russia
C. India
D. Britain

Answer. Russia

21. In the movement of inversion of the foot, the sole faces
A. Laterally
B. Posteriorly
C. Downwards
D. Medially

Answer. Medially

22. Scapula is an example of
A. Long bone
B. Irregular bone
C. Short bone
D. Flat bone

Answer. Flat bone

23. The anatomical closure of foramen ovale takes place
A. About two months after birth
B. At seven months gestation
C. At nine months gestation
D. Immediately after birth

Answer. About two months after birth

24. The anterior fontanelle in the fetal skull usually closes at
A. Birth
B. One year after birth
C. Eighteen months after birth
D. Two months after birth

Answer. Eighteen months after birth

25. Tendon is an example of
A. Dense regular connective tissue
B. Loose connective tissue
C. Dense irregular connective tissue
D. Specialized connective tissue

Answer. Dense regular connective tissue

26. When the amount of amniotic fluid exceeds two liters the condition is called
A. Oligohydramnios
B. Amnionitis
C. Bag of waters
D. Polyhydramnios

Answer. Polyhydramnios

27. Total number of bones in our body
A. 200
B. 204
C. 206
D. 208

Answer. 206

28. Fertilization of the normally occurs in
A. Uterus
B. Ampulla of fallopian tube
C. Vagina
D. Infundidulum of fallopian tube

Answer. Ampulla of fallopian tube

29. At term the amount of amniotic fluid is
A. 500 ml
B. 1500 ml
C. 2000 ml
D. 1000 ml

Answer. Cancelled

30. Thickest nerve in our body
A. Sciatic nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Axillary nerve

Answer. Sciatic nerve

31. Chromosomes of normal human ovum
A. 45 autosomes + 2 x chromosomes
B. 45 autosomes + 1 x chromosome
C. 22 autosomes + 1 y chromosome
D. 22 autosomes + 1 x chromosome

Answer. 22 autosomes + 1 x chromosome

32. Umbilical cord has the following
A. 1 artery and 2 veins
B. 2 arteries and 2 veins
C. 2 arteries and 1 vein
D. Only an artery

Answer. 2 arteries and 1 vein

33. Longest vein in the human body is
A. Long saphenous vein
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Basalic vein
D. Cephalic vein

Answer. Long saphenous vein

34. Length of spinal cord
A. 25 cm
B. 35 cm
C. 45 cm
D. 55 cm

Answer. 45 cm

35. Brocas area is located in
A. Temporal lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. Occipital lobe
D. Frontal lobe

Answer. Frontal lobe

36. Smallest of cranial nerves
A. Optic
B. Trochlear
C. Occulomotor
D. Abducens

Answer. Trochlear

37. Characteristic feature of first cervical vertebra is
A. Bifid spinous process
B. No body
C. Bifid vertebral process
D. No transverse process

Answer. No body

38. Most prominent muscle in the neck
A. Trapezius
B. Masseter
C. Platysma
D. Sternocleidomastoid

Answer. Sternocleidomastoid

39. Carpel tunnel syndrome is due to compression of
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Sciatic nerve

Answer. Median nerve

40. Which part of the stomach is affected by the ulcer ?
A. Cardiac end
B. Body
C. Fundus
D. Pylorus

Answer. Cancelled

41. Vitamin B12 is absorbed from
A. Stomach
B. Colon
C. Ileum
D. Duodenum

Answer. Ileum

42. Largest gland in the body
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Spleen
D. Prostate

Answer. Liver

43. Length of the female urethra
A. 1 cm
B. 2 cm
C. 3 cm
D. 4 cm

Answer. 4 cm

44. Normal pH of blood
A. 7.0-7.1
B. 7.2-7.4
C. 7.3-7.5
D. 7.6-7.8

Answer. 7.3-7.5

45. Power house of a cell
A. Nucleus
B. Mithochondria
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Lysosome

Answer. Mithochondria

46. Life span of RBC
A. 60 days
B. 80 days
C. 100 days
D. 120 days

Answer. 120 days

47. Potent vasopresser
A. Serotonin
B. Angiotensin II
C. Nor-epinephrine
D. Epinephrine

Answer. Nor-epinephrine

48. Dyspnoea means
A. Absence of breathing
B. Difficulty in breathing
C. Increased breathing
D. Decreased breathing

Answer. Difficulty in breathing

49. Lifespan of sperm in female genital tract
A. 1-2 days
B. 2-3 days
C. 3-4 days
D. 4-5 days

Answer. Cancelled

50. Weight of non pregnant uterus
A. 40 gm
B. 60 gm
C. 80 gm
D. 100 gm

Answer. 60 gm

51. Milk ejection is due to
A. Estrogen
B. Prolactin
C. Progesterone
D. Oxytocin

Answer. Oxytocin

52. Commonest cyanotic congenital heart disease
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Transposition of great vessels
C. Tetrology of fallot

Answer. Tetrology of fallot

53. Purposeless involuntary rapid movements is called
A. Chorea
B. Carditis
C. Poly arthritis
D. Subcutaneous nodules

Answer. Chorea

54. Normal value of antistreptilysin O titre is
A. 150 IU/ml
B. 200 IU/ml
C. 100 IU/ml
D. 125 IU/ml

Answer. 200 IU/ml

55. Iron chelating agent is
A. Vitamin
B. Ferrous sulphate
C. Iron dextran
D. Desferrioxamine

Answer. Desferrioxamine

56. Haemolytic disease in newborn is due to
A. Rh incompatability
B. Sepsis
C. Neonatal jaundice
D. Anemia

Answer. Rh incompatability

57. Macewen’s sign is seen in
A. Brain tumor
B. Meningocele
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Head injury

Answer. Hydrocephalus

58. Congenital deficiency of thyroid hormone is
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Goiter
C. Parathyroidism
D. Cretinism

Answer. Cretinism

59. Loss of sperm motility is
A. Spermatozoon
B. Azoospermia
C. Oogonia
D. Athenozoospermia

Answer. Athenozoospermia

60. Irregular acyclic bleeding from the uterus
A. Polymenorrhoea
B. Metrorrhagia
C. Hypomenorrhoea
D. Dysmenorrhoea

Answer. Metrorrhagia

61. Painful sexual intercourse
A. Dyspareunia
B. Dysuria
C. Dyspepsia
D. Dysarthria

Answer. Dyspareunia

62. Schick test is performed in
A. Tetanus
B. Pertusis
C. Diphtheria
D. Mumps

Answer. Diphtheria

63. Human poverty index was introduced in
A. 1989
B. 1995
C. 1992
D. 1997

Answer. 1997

64. The causative organism of typhoid fever is
A. Streptococcus
B. S. typhi
C. W. bancrofti
D. Staphylococcus

Answer. S. typhi

65. Oral polio vaccine was first described by
A. Sabin
B. Calmette
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Alexander

Answer. Sabin

66. National population policy was adopted in the year
A. 1990
B. 1993
C. 1995
D. 1985

Answer. 1993

67. Revised national tuberculosis programme was evolved in the year
A. 1995
B. 1989
C. 1990
D. 1992

Answer. 1992

68. Duhamel operation is performed in
A. Anorectal malformations
B. Hirschsorungs disease
C. Appendicitis
D. Omphalocele

Answer. Hirschsorungs disease

69. An abnormal opening in the septum between the right and left ventricle is

Answer. VSD

70. Antidote of paracetamol poisoning is
A. Morphine
B. N acetyl cysteine
C. Antacid
D. Protamine sulphate

Answer. N acetyl cysteine

71. The biparietal diameter of the fetal skull is measured as
A. 8 cm
B. 9 cm
C. 9.5 cm
D. 10 cm

Answer. 9.5 cm

72. The total weight gain during pregnancy
A. 10 kg
B. 13 kg
C. 14 kg
D. 11 kg

Answer. 11 kg

73. The size of the ovum is
A. 0.133 cm
B. 0.2 mm
C. 0.144 mm
D. 0.121 mm

Answer. 0.133 cm

74. Peak level of hCG in the urine seen after _______ day of pregnancy.
A. 30
B. 45
C. 70
D. 100

Answer. 70

75. HCG is secreted by
A. Chorion
B. Syncytiotrophoblast
C. Cytotrophoblast
D. Amnion

Answer. Syncytiotrophoblast

76. Quickening is felt at
A. 16 wks
B. 19 wks
C. 20 wks
D. 12 wks

Answer. Cancelled

77. Total duration of pregnancy
A. 270 days
B. 280 days
C. 290 days
D. 300 days

Answer. 280 days

78. Maternal antibodies are present against all diseases except
A. Tetanus
B. Mumps
C. Pertusis
D. Polio myelitis

Answer. Pertusis

79. Involution of the utters is completed by
A. 6 wks
B. 8 wks
C. 12 wks
D. 16 wks

Answer. 6 wks

80. The placenta is formed and starts functioning _______ wks after fertilization.
A. 13
B. 10
C. 4
D. 15

Answer. 10

81. Invasion of the body by pathogenic organisms
A. Inflammation
B. Carrier
C. Sepsis
D. Infection

Answer. Infection

82. An agent that inhibit the growth of bacteria
A. Antiseptic
B. Fungicide
C. Bacteriostat
D. Bactericide

Answer. Bacteriostat

83. Destruction of all microorganisms including their spores
A. Terminal disinfection
B. Immunization
C. Concurrent disinfection
D. Sterilization

Answer. Sterilization

84. Drugs given for the prophylaxis of rheumatic fever
A. Tetracyclines
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Penicillins
D. Cephalosporins

Answer. Penicillins

85. CSF is secreted by
A. Cerebral aqueduct
B. Foramen magnum
C. Foramen of luschka
D. Choroid plexus

Answer. Choroid plexus

86. Antidote of heparin
A. Protamin
B. Promethazine
C. Warfarin
D. Probenecid

Answer. Protamin

87. The pace maker of the heart
A. AV node
B. SA node
C. Bundle of his
D. Purkinje fibers

Answer. SA node

88. Normal bleeding time is
A. 1-3 m
B. 3-6 mt
C. 6-10 mt
D. 10-12 mt

Answer. Cancelled

89. Removal of a lobe of a lung
A. Wedge resection
B. Lobectomy
C. Thoracotomy
D. Segmental resection

Answer. Lobectomy

90. Hemoptysis is
A. Blood in sputum
B. Blood in urine
C. Blood in vomitus
D. Blood in feces

Answer. Blood in sputum

91. Right ventricular enlargement due to pulmonary problem
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Cardiomyopathy
C. Cor pulmonale
D. Emphysema

Answer. Cor pulmonale

92. A benign bone tumor
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Osteoblastoma
C. Ewing’s sarcoma
D. Fibrosarcoma

Answer. Osteoblastoma

93. Inflammation of the thyroid gland
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Goiter
C. Thyroiditis
D. Cretinism

Answer. Thyroiditis

94. Surgery for cancer of colon
A. Illeostomy
B. Colostomy
C. Cecostomy
D. Abdominoperineal resection

Answer. Abdominoperineal resection

95. Normal specific gravity of urine
A. 0.900 – 1.000
B. 1.010 – 1.020
C. 1.000 – 1.010
D. 1.020 – 1.050

Answer. 1.010 – 1.020

96. Leukoplakia is the earliest sign of
A. Oral cancer
B. Lymphoma
C. Leukemia
D. Liver cirrhosis

Answer. Oral cancer

97. Common complication after gastrectomy
A. Infection
B. Bleeding
C. Dumping syndrome
D. Hypotension

Answer. Dumping syndrome

98. The position given for a patient with dyspnoea
A. Orthopneic position
B. Lithotomy position
C. Sim’s position
D. Trendelen burg

Answer. Orthopneic position

99. A harsh vibrating shrill sound produced during respiration and seen in laryngitis
A. Rale
B. Wheeze
C. Stridor
D. Stertorous

Answer. Stridor

100. Marasmus is
A. Deficiency of vitamin
B. Protein malnutrition
C. Deficiency of fatty acids
D. Protein energy malnutrition

Answer. Protein energy malnutrition

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